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This is an ASCII text version of the Amateur Extra Class question pool. There is a supplementary section after the answers for this original section. It is left up to you to position those supplementary corrections, question, and possible answers. Direct any questions to skaggs@nsslc.nssl.uoknor.edu. 73 de WB5ULK SUBELEMENT 4BA -- Commission's Rules (8 questions) 1. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 3525-3775 kHz B. 3500-3525 kHz C. 3700-3750 kHz D. 3500-3550 kHz 2. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 3750-3775 kHz B. 3800-3850 kHz C. 3775-3800 kHz D. 3800-3825 kHz 3. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 7000-7025 kHz B. 7000-7050 kHz C. 7025-7050 kHz D. 7100-7150 kHz 4. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz 5. What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra control operators? A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz 6. What is a spurious emission or radiation? A. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation falling outside the amateur band being used B. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation other than the fundamental that exceeds 25 microwatts, regardless of frequency C. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation other than the fundamental that exceeds 10 microwatts, regardless of frequency D. As defined by Section 97.73, any emission or radiation falling outside the amateur band that exceeds 25 microwatts 7. How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or radiation from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency is below 30 MHz and the mean transmitted power is equal to or greater than 5 watts? A. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 25 mW B. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 50 mW C. At least 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 50 mW D. At least 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental, and less than 25 mW 8. How much must the mean power of any spurious emission or radiation from an amateur transmitter be attenuated when the carrier frequency is above 30 MHz but below 225 MHz and the mean transmitted power is greater than 25 watts? A. At least 30 dB below mean power of the fundamental B. At least 40 dB below mean power of the fundamental C. At least 50 dB below mean power of the fundamental D. At least 60 dB below mean power of the fundamental 9. What can the FCC require the licensee to do if any spurious radiation from an amateur station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station? A. Reduce the spurious emissions to 0 dB below the fundamental B. Observe quiet hours and pay a fine C. Forfeit the station license and pay a fine D. Eliminate or reduce the interference 10. What are the points of communication for an amateur station? A. Other amateur stations only B. Other amateur stations and other stations authorized by the FCC to communicate with amateurs C. Other amateur stations and stations in the Personal Radio Service D. Other amateur stations and stations in the Aviation or Private Land Mobile Radio Services 11. With which stations may an amateur station communicate? A. Amateur, RACES and FCC Monitoring stations B. Amateur stations and any other station authorized by the FCC to communicate with amateur stations C. Amateur stations only D. Amateur stations and US Government stations 12. Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station communicate with a non-amateur station? A. Only during emergencies and when the Commission has authorized the non-amateur station to communicate with amateur stations B. Under no circumstances C. Only when the state governor has authorized that station to communicate with amateurs D. Only during Public Service events in connection with REACT groups 13. What rules must US citizens comply with when operating an Amateur Radio station in international waters? A. The FCC rules contained in Part 15 B. The FCC rules contained in Part 97 C. The IARU rules governing international operation D. There are no rules governing Amateur Radio operation in international waters 14. An Amateur Radio station is installed on board a ship or aircraft in a compartment separate from the main radio installation. What other conditions must the amateur operator comply with? A. The Amateur Radio operation must be approved by the master of the ship of the captain of the aircraft B. There must be an approved antenna switch included, so the amateur can use the ship or aircraft antennas, transmitting only when the main radios are not in use C. The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the ship or aircraft power D. The Amateur Radio operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her Amateur license 15. What types of licenses or permits are required before an amateur operator may transmit from a vessel registered in the US? A. No amateur license is required outside of international waters B. Any Amateur Radio license or Reciprocal Operating Permit issued by the FCC C. Only amateur licensees General class or above may transmit on a vessel registered in the US D. Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee may operate aboard a vessel registered in the US 16. What is an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit? A. An FCC authorization to a holder of an amateur license issued by certain foreign governments to operate an Amateur Radio station in the United States and its possessions B. An FCC permit to allow a United States licensed amateur to operate his station in a foreign nation, except Canada C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle traffic between the United States and the amateur's own nation, subject to FCC rules on traffic handling and third-party messages D. An FCC permit to a commercial telecommunications company allowing that company to pay amateurs to handle traffic during emergencies 17. Who is eligible for an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit? A. Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign government B. Anyone holding a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign government with which the United States has a reciprocal operating agreement, providing that person is not a United States citizen C. Anyone who holds a valid Amateur Radio license issued by a foreign government with which the United States has a reciprocal operating agreement D. Anyone other than a United States citizen who holds a valid Amateur Radio or shortwave listener's license issued by a foreign government 18. Under what circumstances, if any, is a US citizen holding a foreign Amateur Radio license eligible to obtain an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit? A. A US Citizen is not eligible to obtain a Reciprocal Operating Permit for use in the United States B. Only if the applicant brings his or her equipment from the foreign country C. Only if that person is unable to qualify for a United States amateur license D. If the applicant does not hold an FCC license as of the date of application, but had held a US amateur license other than Novice class less than 10 years before the date of application 19. What are the operator frequency privileges authorized by an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit? A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent United States amateur license, unless the FCC specifies otherwise by endorsement on the permit B. Those that the holder of the Reciprocal Operating Permit would have if he were in his own country C. Only those frequencies permitted to United States amateurs that the holder of the Reciprocal Operating Permit would have in his own country, unless the FCC specifies otherwise D. Only those frequencies approved by the International Amateur Radio Union, unless the FCC specifies otherwise 20. How does an alien operator identify an Amateur Radio station when operating under an FCC Reciprocal Operating Permit? A. By using only his or her own call B. By using his or her own call, followed by the city and state in the United States or possessions closest to his or her present location C. By using his or her own call, followed by the letter(s) and number indicating the United States call-letter district of his or her location at the time of the contact, with the city and state nearest the location specified once during each contact D. By using his or her own call sign, followed by the serial number of the Reciprocal Operating Permit and the call-letter district number of his or her present location 21. What is RACES? A. An Amateur Radio network for providing emergency communications during long-distance athletic contests B. The Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service C. The Radio Amateur Corps for Engineering Services D. An Amateur Radio network providing emergency communications for transoceanic boat or aircraft races 22. What is the purpose of RACES? A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies B. To provide emergency communications for transoceanic boat or aircraft races C. To provide routine and emergency communications for long-distance athletic events D. To provide routine and emergency communications for large-scale international events, such as the Olympic games 23. With what other organization must an Amateur Radio station be registered before RACES registration is permitted? A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service B. The US Department of Defense C. A Civil Defense organization D. The Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC Field Operations Bureau 24. Who may be the control operator of a RACES station? A. Anyone who holds a valid FCC amateur operator's license other than Novice B. Only an Amateur Extra Class licensee C. Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license other than Novice and is certified by a Civil Defense organization D. Anyone who holds an FCC Amateur Radio license and is certified by a Civil Defense organization 25. What additional operator privileges are granted to an Amateur Extra Class operator registered with RACES? A. None B. Permission to operate CW on 5167.5 kHz C. Permission to operate an unattended HF packet radio station D. Permission to operate on the 237-MHz Civil Defense band 26. What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation? A. Only those frequencies authorized by the ARRL Section Emergency Coordinator B. Only those frequencies listed in Section 97.8 C. Only transmitting frequencies in the top 25 kHz of each Amateur band D. All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio Service 27. What type of emergency can cause a limitation on the frequencies available for RACES operation? A. An emergency in which the President invokes the War Emergency Powers under the provisions of the Communications Act of 1934 B. RACES operations must be confined to a single frequency band if the emergency is contained within a single state C. RACES operations must be conducted on a VHF band if the emergency is confined to an area 25 miles or less in radius D. The Red Cross may limit available frequencies if the emergency involves no immediate danger of loss of life 28. Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? A. Only Extra Class Amateur Radio stations B. Any licensed Amateur Radio station except a station licensed to a Novice C. Any licensed Amateur Radio station certified by the responsible Civil Defense organization D. Any licensed Amateur Radio station other than a station licensed to a Novice, providing the station is certified by the responsible Civil Defense organization 29. What are the points of communications for amateur stations operated in RACES and certified by the responsible Civil Defense organization as registered with that organization? A. Any RACES, Civil Defense, or Disaster Communications Service station B. Any RACES stations and any FCC licensed amateur stations except stations licensed to Novices C. Any FCC licensed amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications Service D. Any FCC licensed amateur station except stations licensed to Novices 30. What are permissible communications in RACES? A. Any communications concerning local traffic nets B. Any communications concerning the Amateur Radio Emergency Service C. Any communications concerning national defense and security or immediate safety of people and property that are authorized by the area Civil Defense organization D. Any communications concerning national defense or security or immediate safety of people or property but only when a state of emergency has been declared by the President, the governor, or other authorized official, and then only so long as the state of emergency endures 31. What are the purposes of the Amateur Satellite Service? A. It is a radionavigation service using stations on earth satellites for the same purposes as those of the Amateur Radio Service B. It is a radiocommunication service using stations on earth satellites for weather information C. It is a radiocommunication service using stations on earth satellites for the same purpose as those of the Amateur Radio Service D. It is a radiolocation service using stations on earth satellites for Amateur Radio operators engaged in satellite radar experimentation 32. What are some frequencies available for space operation? A. 7.0-7.1, 14.00-14.25, 21.00-21.45, 24.890-24.990, 28.00-29.70, 144-146, 435-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz B. 7.0-7.3, 21.00-21.45, 28.00-29.70, 144-146, 432-438 and 24,000-24,050 MHz C. All frequencies available to the Amateur Radio Service, providing license-class, power and emission-type restrictions are observed D. Only frequencies available to Amateur Extra Class licensees 33. What is the term used to describe an earth-to-space Amateur Radio communication that controls the functions of an amateur satellite? A. Space operation B. Telecommand operation C. Earth operation D. Control operation 34. Which amateur stations are eligible for telecommand operation? A. Any Amateur Radio licensee except Novice B. Amateur Extra Class licensees only C. Telecommand operation is not permitted in the amateur satellite service D. Any Amateur Radio station designated by the space station licensee 35. What term is used to describe space-to-earth transmissions that communicate the results of measurements made by a station in space operation? A. Data transmission B. Frame check sequence C. Telemetry D. Telecommand operation 36. What is the term used to describe Amateur Radio communication from a station that is beyond the major portion of the earth's atmosphere? A. EME B. Exospheric operation C. Downlink D. Space operation 37. Which amateur stations are eligible for space operation? A. Any licensee except Novice B. General, Advanced and Extra Class licensees only C. Advanced and Extra Class licensees only D. Amateur Extra Class licensees only 38. When must the licensee of a station scheduled for space operation give the FCC written pre-space notification? A. 3 months to 72 hours prior to initiating space operation B. 6 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation C. 12 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation D. 27 months to 3 months prior to initiating space operation 39. When must the licensee of a station in space operation give the FCC written in-space notification? A. No later than 24 hours following initiation of space operation B. No later than 72 hours following initiation of space operation C. No later than 7 days following initiation of space operation D. No later than 30 days following initiation of space operation 40. When must the licensee of a station in space operation give the FCC written post-space notification? A. No later than 48 hours after termination is complete, under normal circumstances B. No later than 72 hours after termination is complete, under normal circumstances C. No later than 7 days after termination is complete, under normal circumstances D. No later than 3 months after termination is complete, under normal circumstances 41. What term describes earth-to-space-to-earth Amateur Radio communication by means of radio signals automatically retransmitted by a station in space operation? A. Earth operation B. ESE C. Repeater operation D. Auxiliary operation 42. Which amateur stations are eligible for earth operation? A. Any Amateur Radio station B. Amateur Extra Class licensees only C. Any licensee except Novice D. A special license issued by the FCC is required before any Amateur Radio station is placed in earth operation 43. What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator? A. An organization that is authorized to administer FCC Amateur Radio license examinations to candidates for the Novice license B. An organization that is authorized to administer FCC Amateur Radio examinations for any class of license other than Novice C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate the efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and administering examinations for Amateur Radio operator licenses D. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and administering examinations for Amateur Radio operator licenses other than Novice 44. What are the requirements to be a VEC A. Be engaged in the manufacture and/or sale of amateur equipment or in the coordination of amateur activities throughout at least one call-letter district; and agree to abide by FCC Rules concerning administration of Amateur Radio examinations B. Be organized at least partially for the purpose of furthering Amateur Radio; be at least regional in scope; and agree to abide by FCC Rules concerning coordination of Amateur Radio examinations C. Be organized at least partially for the purpose of furthering Amateur Radio; be, at the most, county-wide in scope; and agree to abide by FCC Rules concerning administration of Amateur Radio examinations D. Be engaged in a business related to Amateur Radio; and agree to administer Amateur Radio examinations in accordance with FCC Rules throughout at least one call-letter district 45. What are the functions of a VEC? A. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' application forms, answer sheets and test results and forward the applications to the FCC; maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules B. Assemble, print and sell FCC-approved examination forms; accredit Volunteer Examiners; collect candidates' answer sheets and forward them to the FCC; screen applications for completeness and authenticity; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules C. Accredit Volunteer Examiners; certify that examiners' equipment is type-accepted by the FCC; assemble, print and distribute FCC-approved examination forms; and perform other clerical tasks in accordance with FCC Rules D. Maintain pools of questions for Amateur Radio examinations; administer code and theory examinations; score and forward the test papers to the FCC so that the appropriate license may be issued to each successful candidate 46. Where are the questions listed that must be used in written examinations? A. In the appropriate VEC question pool B. In PR Bulletin 1035C C. In PL 97-259 D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order 47. How is an Element 3(A) examination prepared? A. By Advanced or Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 48. How is an Element 3(B) examination prepared? A. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 49. How is an Element 4(A) examination prepared? A. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 50. How is an Element 4(B) examination prepared? A. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. By Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. By Extra Class Volunteer Examiners selecting questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. By the FCC selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 51. What organization coordinates the dates and times for scheduling Amateur Radio examinations? A. The FCC B. A VEC C. The IARU D. Local radio clubs 52. Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a VE on the basis of membership in an Amateur Radio organization? A. Under no circumstances B. Only when the prospective VE is an ARRL member C. Only when the prospective VE is not a member of the local Amateur Radio club D. Only when the club is at least regional in scope 53. Under what circumstances, if any, may a VEC refuse to accredit a person as a VE on the basis of lack of membership in an Amateur Radio organization? A. Under no circumstances B. Only when the prospective VE is not an ARRL member C. Only when the club is at least regional in scope D. Only when the prospective VE is a not a member of the local Amateur Radio club giving the examinations 54. Under what circumstance, if any, may an organization engaged in the manufacture of equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions be a VEC? A. Under no circumstances B. If the organization's amateur-related sales are very small C. If the organization is manufacturing very specialized amateur equipment D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest 55. Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who is an employee of a company that is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in connection with Amateur Radio transmissions be a VE? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the employee's work is not directly related to that part of the company involved in the manufacture or distribution of amateur equipment C. Only if the employee has no financial interest in the company D. Only if the employee is an Extra Class licensee 56. Under what circumstances, if any, may a person who owns a significant interest in a company that is engaged in the preparation of publications used in preparation for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VE? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the organization's amateur-related sales are very small C. Only if the organization is publishing very specialized material D. Only if the person is an Extra Class licensee 57. Under what circumstances, if any, may an organization engaged in the distribution of publications used in preparation for obtaining an amateur operator license be a VEC? A. Under no circumstances B. Only if the organization's amateur publishing business is very small C. Only if the organization is selling the publication at cost to examinees D. Only upon FCC approval that preventive measures have been taken to preclude any possible conflict of interest 58. Who may reimburse VEs and VECs for out-of-pocket expenses incurred in preparing, processing or administering examinations? A. Examinees B. FCC C. ARRL D. FCC and Examiners 59. What action must a VEC take against a VE who accepts reimbursement and fails to provide the annual expense certification? A. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 1 year B. Disaccredit the VE C. Suspend the VE's accreditation and report the information to the FCC D. Suspend the VE's accreditation for 6 months 60. What type of expense records must be maintained by a VE who accepts reimbursement? A. All out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements from the examinees B. All out-of-pocket expenses only C. Reimbursements from examiners only D. FCC reimbursements only 61. For what period of time must a VE maintain records of out-of-pocket expenses and reimbursements for each examination session for which reimbursement is accepted? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years 62. By what date each year must a VE forward to the VEC a certification concerning expenses for which reimbursement was accepted? A. December 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted B. January 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted C. April 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted D. October 15 following the year for which the reimbursement was accepted 63. For what type of services may a VE be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses? A. Preparing, processing or administering examinations above the Novice class B. Preparing, processing or administering examinations including the Novice class C. A VE cannot be reimbursed for out-of-pocket expenses D. Only for preparation of examination elements 64. What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner? A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses B. An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses C. An Amateur Radio operator who administers examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses for a fee D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to administer Amateur Radio examinations 65. What is an accredited VE? A. A General class radio amateur who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses B. An Amateur Radio operator who is accredited by a VEC to administer examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses C. An Amateur Radio operator who administers examinations to applicants for Amateur Radio licenses for a fee D. An FCC staff member who tests volunteers who want to administer Amateur Radio examinations 66. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for a Technician class operator license? A. The Volunteer Examiner must be a Novice class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator B. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Advanced or Extra Class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator C. The Volunteer Examiner must be an Extra Class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator D. The Volunteer Examiner must be a General class licensee accredited by a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator 67. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for a General class operator license? A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC B. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be accredited by a VEC C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC D. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test element 68. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for an Advanced class operator license? A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC B. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be accredited by a VEC C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC D. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test element 69. What are the requirements for a Volunteer Examiner administering an examination for an Amateur Extra Class operator license? A. The examiner must hold an Advanced class license and be accredited by a VEC B. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license and be accredited by a VEC C. The examiner must hold a General class license and be accredited by a VEC D. The examiner must hold an Extra Class license to administer the written test element, but an Advanced class examiner may administer the CW test element 70. When is VE accreditation necessary? A. Always in order to administer a Technician or higher class license examination B. Always in order to administer a Novice or higher class license examination C. Sometimes in order to administer an Advanced or higher class license examination D. VE accreditation is not necessary in order to administer a General or higher class license examination 71. What is VE accreditation? A. The process by which all Advanced and Extra Class licensees are automatically given permission to conduct Amateur Radio examinations B. The process by which the FCC tests volunteers who wish to coordinate Amateur Radio license examinations C. The process by which the prospective VE requests his or her requirements for accreditation D. The process by which each VEC makes sure its VEs meet FCC requirements to serve as Volunteer Examiners 72. What are the requirements for VE accreditation? A. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 18 years old; not have any conflict of interest; and never had his or her amateur license suspended or revoked B. Hold an Advanced class license or higher; be at least 16 years old; and not have any conflict of interest C. Hold an Extra Class license or higher; be at least 18 years old; and be a member of ARRL D. There are no requirements for accreditation, other than holding a General or higher class license 73. The services of which persons seeking to be VEs will not be accepted by the FCC? A. Persons with Advanced class licenses B. Persons being between 18 and 21 years of age C. Persons who have ever had their amateur licenses suspended or revoked D. Persons who are employees of the Federal Government 74. Under what circumstances, if any, may a person be compensated for services as a VE? A. When the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session B. When the VE loses a day's pay to administer the exam C. When the VE spends many hours preparing for the test session D. Under no circumstances 75. How much money, if any, may a person accept for services as a VE? A. None B. Up to a half day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session C. Up to a full day's pay if the VE spends more than 4 hours preparing for the test session D. Up to $50 if the VE spends more than 4 hours at the test session 76. What is an Element 1(A) examination intended to prove? A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM B. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM C. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM 77. What is an Element 1(B) examination intended to prove? A. The applicant's knowledge of Novice class theory and regulations B. The applicant's knowledge of General class theory and regulations C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM 78. What is an Element 1(C) examination intended to prove? A. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 20 WPM B. The applicant's knowledge of Amateur Extra Class theory and regulations C. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 13 WPM D. The applicant's ability to send and receive Morse code at 5 WPM 79. What is Examination Element 2? A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Novice class operator license D. The written examination for the Technician class operator license 80. What is Examination Element 3(A)? A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Technician class operator license D. The written examination for the General class operator license 81. What is Examination Element 3(B)? A. The 5-WPM amateur Morse code examination B. The 13-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Technician class operator license D. The written examination for the General class operator license 82. What is Examination Element 4(A)? A. The written examination for the Technician class operator license B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator license D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class operator license 83. What is Examination Element 4(B)? A. The written examination for the Technician class operator license B. The 20-WPM amateur Morse code examination C. The written examination for the Advanced class operator license D. The written examination for the Amateur Extra Class operator license 84. Who must prepare Examination Element 1(B)? A. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators B. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators C. The FCC D. The Field Operations Bureau 85. Who must prepare Examination Element 1(C)? A. The FCC B. The Field Operations Bureau C. Advanced class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators D. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators 86. Who must prepare Examination Element 3(A)? A. Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators 87. Who must prepare Examination Element 3(B)? A. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Advanced or General class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators 88. Who must prepare Examination Element 4(A)? A. Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators 89. Who must prepare Examination Element 4(B)? A. Advanced or Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators B. The FCC C. The Field Operations Bureau D. Extra Class licensees serving as Volunteer Examiners, or Volunteer-Examiner Coordinators 90. What examination elements are required for an Amateur Extra Class operator license? A. 1(C) and 4(B) B. 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) C. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 4(A) and 4(B) D. 1(C), 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) 91. What examination elements are required for an Advanced class operator license? A. 1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) B. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) C. 1(B) and 4(A) D. 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) 92. What examination elements are required for a General class operator license? A. 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) B. 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) C. 1(A), 3(A) and 3(B) D. 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) 93. What examination elements are required for a Technician class operator license? A. 1(A) and 2 B. 1(A) and 3(A) C. 1(A), 2 and 3(A) D. 2 and 3(A) 94. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Novice class operator license? A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 2 B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 3(A) C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 2 D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 3(A) 95. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Technician class operator license issued after March 20, 1987? A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A) and 2 B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2 and 3(A) C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2 and 3(A) D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) 96. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Technician class operator license issued before March 21, 1987? A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2 and 3(B) B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 4(A) D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 3(A) and 3(B) 97. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid General class operator license? A. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(B) D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A) and 3(B) 98. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid Advanced class operator license? A. Credit for successful completion of Element 4(A) B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B) and 4(A) C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(B), 2, 3(A), 3(B) and 4(A) D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(C), 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) 99. What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by another country? A. Credit for successful completion of any elements that may be identical to those required for U.S. licensees B. No credit C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 1(B) and 1(C) D. Credit for successful completion of Elements 2, 3(A), 3(B), 4(A) and 4(B) 100. What examination credit, if any, may be given to an applicant who holds a valid amateur operator license issued by any other United States government agency than the FCC? A. No credit B. Credit for successful completion of Elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C) C. Credit for successful completion of Elements 4(A) and 4(B) D. Credit for successful completion of Element 1(C) 101. What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds a valid FCC commercial radiotelegraph license? A. No credit B. Credit for successful completion of element 1(B) only C. Credit for successful completion of elements 1(A), 1(B) or 1(C) D. Credit for successful completion of element 1(A) only 102. What examination credit must be given to the holder of a valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination? A. Credit for previously completed written examination elements only B. Credit for the code speed associated with the previously completed telegraphy examination elements only C. Credit for previously completed written and telegraphy examination elements only D. Credit for previously completed commercial examination elements only 103. Who determines where and when examinations for amateur operator licenses are to be administered? A. The FCC B. The Section Manager C. The applicants D. The administering Volunteer Examiner Team 104. Where must the examiners be and what must they be doing during an examination? A. The examiners must be present and observing the candidate(s) throughout the entire examination B. The examiners must be absent to allow the candidate(s) to complete the entire examination in accordance with the traditional honor system C. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout the administration of telegraphy examination elements only D. The examiners must be present to observe the candidate(s) throughout the administration of written examination elements only 105. Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an examination? A. The VEC B. The FCC C. The administering Volunteer Examiners D. The candidates and the administering Volunteer Examiners 106. What should an examiner do when a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply with the examiner's instructions will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but refuse to issue a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination for any elements passed by fraudulent means D. Immediately terminate the examination and report the violation to federal law enforcement officials 107. What must the candidate do at the completion of the examination? A. Complete a brief written evaluation of the examination session B. Return all test papers to the examiners C. Return all test papers to the examiners and wait for them to be graded before leaving the examination site D. Pay the registration fee 108. When must the test papers be graded? A. Within 5 days of completion of an examination element B. Within 30 days of completion of an examination element C. Immediately upon completion of an examination element D. Within 10 days of completion of an examination element 109. Who must grade the test papers? A. The ARRL B. The administering Volunteer Examiners C. The Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator D. The FCC 110. How do the examiners inform a candidate who does not score a passing grade? A. Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and return the application to the candidate B. Give the percentage of the questions answered incorrectly and return the application to the candidate C. Tell the candidate that he or she failed and return the application to the candidate D. Show how the incorrect answers should have been answered and give a copy of the corrected answer sheet to the candidate 111. What must the examiners do when the candidate scores a passing grade? A. Give the percentage of the questions answered correctly and return the application to the candidate B. Tell the candidate that he or she passed C. Issue the candidate an operator license D. Issue the candidate a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination for the appropriate exam element(s) 112. Within what time limit after administering an exam must the examiners submit the applications and test papers from successful candidates to the VEC? A. Within 10 days B. Within 15 days C. Within 30 days D. Within 90 days 113. To whom do the examiners submit successful candidates' applications and test papers? A. To the candidate B. To the coordinating VEC C. To the local radio club D. To the regional Section Manager 114. When an applicant passes an examination to upgrade his or her operator license, under what authority may he or she be the control operator of an amateur station with the privileges of the higher operator class? A. That of the Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination issued by the VE Team that administered the examination B. That of the ARRL C. Applicants already licensed in the Amateur Radio Service may not use their newly earned privileges until they receive their permanent amateur station and operator licenses D. Applicants may only use their newly earned privileges during emergencies pending issuance of their permanent amateur station and operator licenses 115. What is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination? A. A document printed by the FCC B. A document required for already licensed applicants operating with privileges of an amateur operator class higher than that of their permanent amateur operator licenses C. A document a candidate may use for an indefinite period of time to receive credit for successful completion of any written element D. A permanent Amateur Radio station and operator license certificate issued to a newly-upgraded licensee by the FCC within 90 days of the completion of the examination 116. How long may a successful applicant operate a station under Section 97.35 with the rights and privileges of the higher operator class for which the applicant has passed the appropriate examinations? A. 30 days or until issuance of a permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first B. 3 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first C. 6 months or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first D. 1 year or until issuance of the permanent operator and station license, whichever comes first 117. How must the station call sign be amended when operating under the temporary authority authorized by Section 97.35? A. The applicant must use an identifier code as a prefix to his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "interim AE KA1MJP" B. The applicant must use an identifier code as a suffix to his or her present call sign, e.g., when using voice; "KA1MJP temporary AE" C. By adding after the call sign, when using voice, the phrase "operating temporary Technician, General, Advanced or Extra" D. By adding to the call sign, when using CW, the slant bar followed by the letters T, G, A or E SUBELEMENT 4BB -- Operating Procedures (4 questions) 118. What is an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? A. A pass from west to east B. A pass from east to west C. A pass from south to north D. A pass from north to south 119. What is a descending pass for an amateur satellite? A. A pass from north to south B. A pass from west to east C. A pass from east to west D. A pass from south to north 120. What is the period of an amateur satellite? A. An orbital arc that extends from 60 degrees west longitude to 145 degrees west longitude B. The point on an orbit where satellite height is minimum C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit D. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee 121. What is Mode A in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters B. The lowest frequency used in Phase 3 transponders C. The highest frequency used in Phase 3 translators D. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters 122. What is Mode B in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters B. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters C. The beacon output D. A codestore device used to record messages 123. What is Mode J in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 2 meters B. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70 centimeters C. Operation through a 2-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters D. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters 124. What is Mode L in an amateur satellite? A. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 10 meters B. Operation through a 23-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70 centimeters C. Operation through a 70-centimeter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 23 centimeters D. Operation through a 10-meter receiver on a satellite that retransmits on 70 centimeters 125. What is a linear transponder? A. A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals B. A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a certain passband C. An amplifier for SSB transmissions D. A device used to change FM to SSB 126. What are the two basic types of linear transponders used in amateur satellites? A. Inverting and non-inverting B. Geostationary and elliptical C. Phase 2 and Phase 3 D. Amplitude modulated and frequency modulated 127. Why does the downlink frequency appear to vary by several kHz during a low-earth-orbit amateur satellite pass? A. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Kepler effect B. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Bernoulli effect C. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Boyles' law effect D. The distance between the satellite and ground station is changing, causing the Doppler effect 128. Why does the received signal from a Phase III amateur satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect? A. Because the satellite is rotating B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler effect 129. What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? A. A nonpolarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array 130. How often is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system? A. 30 times per second B. 60 times per second C. 90 times per second D. 120 times per second 131. How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1050 132. How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television system? A. By scanning the field from top to bottom B. By scanning the field from bottom to top C. By scanning even numbered lines in one field and odd numbered ones in the next D. By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in the next 133. What is blanking in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync-pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left and from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern 134. What is the standard video voltage level between the sync tip and the whitest white at TV camera outputs and modulator inputs? A. 1 volt peak-to-peak B. 120 IEEE units C. 12 volts DC D. 5 volts RMS 135. What is the bandwidth of a fast-scan television transmission? A. 3 kHz B. 10 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 6 MHz 136. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 70% D. 100% 137. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 70% D. 100% 138. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 75% D. 100% SUBELEMENT 4BC -- Radio Wave Propagation (2 questions) 139. What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by moonbounce? A. 500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee B. 2,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee C. 5,000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee D. Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window 140. What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery, rapid irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal 141. What are the best days to schedule EME contacts? A. When the moon is at perigee B. When the moon is full C. When the moon is at apogee D. When the weather at both stations is clear 142. What type of receiving system is required for EME communications? A. Equipment capable of reception on 14 MHz B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures 143. What type of transmitting system is required for EME communications? A. A transmitting system capable of operation on the 21 MHz band B. A transmitting system capable of producing a very high ERP C. A transmitting system using an unmodulated carrier D. A transmitting system with a high second harmonic output 144. When the earth's atmosphere is struck by a meteor, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The F1 layer B. The E layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer 145. Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz 146. What is transequatorial propagation? A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between two points on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between any two stations at the same latitude 147. What is the maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? A. About 1,000 miles B. About 2,500 miles C. About 5,000 miles D. About 7,500 miles 148. What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Trans-equatorial propagation only works at night 149. If a beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals, what type of propagation is probably occurring? A. Transequatorial propagation B. Sporadic-E propagation C. Long-path propagation D. Auroral propagation 150. What is the name for a type of propagation in which radio signals travel along the terminator, which separates daylight from darkness? A. Transequatorial propagation B. Sporadic-E propagation C. Long-path propagation D. Gray-line propagation SUBELEMENT 4BD -- Amateur Radio Practice (4 questions) 151. How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain oscilloscope? A. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals while the spectrum analyzer is used to measure ionospheric reflection B. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the time domain C. The oscilloscope is used to display electrical signals in the time domain while the spectrum analyzer is used to display electrical signals in the frequency domain D. The oscilloscope is used for displaying audio frequencies and the spectrum analyzer is used for displaying radio frequencies 152. What does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Voltage C. Resonance D. Frequency 153. What does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. Frequency D. Time 154. What test instrument can be used to display spurious signals in the output of a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer 155. What test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products from an SSB transmitter? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer 156. What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring logic states in a circuit? A. A logic probe has fewer leads to connect to a circuit than a voltmeter B. A logic probe can be used to test analog and digital circuits C. A logic probe can be powered by commercial AC lines D. A logic probe is smaller and shows a simplified readout 157. What piece of test equipment can be used to directly indicate high and low logic states? A. A galvanometer B. An electroscope C. A logic probe D. A Wheatstone bridge 158. What is a logic probe used to indicate? A. A short-circuit fault in a digital-logic circuit B. An open-circuit failure in a digital-logic circuit C. A high-impedance ground loop D. High and low logic states in a digital-logic circuit 159. What piece of test equipment besides an oscilloscope can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital-logic circuit? A. A logic probe B. A galvanometer C. An electroscope D. A Wheatstone bridge 160. What is one of the most significant problems you might encounter when you try to receive signals with a mobile station? A. Ignition noise B. Doppler shift C. Radar interference D. Mechanical vibrations 161. What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile station? A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary B. Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other C. Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces D. Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring 162. How can ferrite beads be used to suppress ignition noise? A. Install them in the resistive high voltage cable every 2 years B. Install them between the starter solenoid and the starter motor C. Install them in the primary and secondary ignition leads D. Install them in the antenna lead to the radio 163. How can ensuring good electrical contact between connecting metal surfaces in a vehicle reduce spark plug noise? A. It reduces the spark gap distance, causing a lower frequency spark B. It helps radiate the spark plug noise away from the vehicle C. It reduces static buildup on the vehicle body D. It encourages lower frequency electrical resonances in the vehicle 164. How can alternator whine be minimized? A. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest possible path B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the shortest possible path C. By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's DC power lead to the vehicle's electrical system D. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead 165. How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed? A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest possible path and by installing a blocking capacitor in series with the positive lead C. By installing a high pass filter in series with the radio's power lead to the vehicle's electrical system and by installing a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead D. By connecting the radio power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads 166. What is a major cause of atmospheric static? A. Sunspots B. Thunderstorms C. Airplanes D. Meteor showers 167. How can you determine if a line-noise interference problem is being generated within your home? A. Check the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer B. Observe the AC waveform on an oscilloscope C. Turn off the main circuit breaker and listen on a battery-operated radio D. Observe the power-line voltage on a spectrum analyzer 168. What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding? A. It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop B. It is non-rotatable C. It receives equally well in all directions D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands 169. What directional pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna? A. A non-cardioid pattern B. Good front-to-back and front-to-side ratios C. Good top-to-bottom and front-to-side ratios D. Shallow nulls 170. What is the triangulation method of direction finding? A. Using the geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves emanating from the same source to locate the signal source B. A fixed receiving station uses three beam headings to plot the signal source on a map C. Beam headings from several receiving locations are used to plot the signal source on a map D. The use of three vertical antennas to indicate the location of the signal source 171. Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding? A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal B. It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals 172. What is a sense antenna? A. A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern B. A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern C. A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce an omnidirectional reception pattern D. A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern 173. What type of antenna is most useful for sky-wave reception in radio direction finding? A. A log-periodic dipole array B. An isotropic antenna C. A circularly polarized antenna D. An Adcock antenna 174. What is a loop antenna? A. A circularly polarized antenna B. A coil of wire used as an antenna in FM broadcast receivers C. A wire loop used in radio direction finding D. An antenna coupled to the feed line through an inductive loop of wire 175. How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased? A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop while reducing the area of the loop structure C. By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop, or the area of the loop structure D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop, or the area of the loop structure 176. Why is an antenna system with a cardioid pattern desirable for a direction-finding system? A. The broad side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at the desired station B. The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station C. The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station D. The high radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for short-distance direction finding 177. What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding? A. Homogeneous terrain B. Smooth grassy terrain C. Varied terrain D. Terrain with no buildings or mountains SUBELEMENT 4BE -- Electrical Principles (6 questions) 178. What is the photoconductive effect? A. The conversion of photon energy to electromotive energy B. The increased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction C. The conversion of electromotive energy to photon energy D. The decreased conductivity of an illuminated semiconductor junction 179. What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. The conductivity of the material increases B. The conductivity of the material decreases C. The conductivity of the material stays the same D. The conductivity of the material becomes temperature dependent 180. What happens to the resistance of a photoconductive material when light shines on it? A. It increases B. It becomes temperature dependent C. It stays the same D. It decreases 181. What happens to the conductivity of a semiconductor junction when it is illuminated? A. It stays the same B. It becomes temperature dependent C. It increases D. It decreases 182. What is an optocoupler? A. A resistor and a capacitor B. A frequency modulated helium-neon laser C. An amplitude modulated helium-neon laser D. An LED and a phototransistor 183. What is an optoisolator? A. An LED and a phototransistor B. A P-N junction that develops an excess positive charge when exposed to light C. An LED and a capacitor D. An LED and a solar cell 184. What is an optical shaft encoder? A. An array of optocouplers chopped by a stationary wheel B. An array of optocouplers whose light transmission path is controlled by a rotating wheel C. An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is controlled by a stationary wheel D. An array of optocouplers whose propagation velocity is controlled by a rotating wheel 185. What does the photoconductive effect in crystalline solids produce a noticeable change in? A. The capacitance of the solid B. The inductance of the solid C. The specific gravity of the solid D. The resistance of the solid 186. What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RC circuit? A. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 36.8% of the supply voltage B. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 36.8% of the supply current C. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 63.2% of the supply current D. The time required to charge the capacitor in the circuit to 63.2% of the supply voltage 187. What is the meaning of the term time constant of an RL circuit? A. The time required for the current in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value B. The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value C. The time required for the current in the circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value D. The time required for the voltage in the circuit to build up to 36.8% of the maximum value 188. What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one B. One time constant C. One exponential period D. A time factor of one 189. What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A. One time constant B. An exponential period of one C. A time factor of one D. One exponential rate 190. What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge? A. One discharge period B. An exponential discharge rate of one C. A discharge factor of one D. One time constant 191. What is meant by back EMF? A. A current equal to the applied EMF B. An opposing EMF equal to R times C (RC) percent of the applied EMF C. A current that opposes the applied EMF D. A voltage that opposes the applied EMF 192. After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage? A. 36.8% B. 63.2% C. 86.5% D. 95% 193. After two time constants, the capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage? A. 86.5% B. 63.2% C. 36.8% D. 13.5% 194. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 100-microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor? A. 4700 seconds B. 470 seconds C. 47 seconds D. 0.47 seconds 195. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 1-megohm resistor? A. 220 seconds B. 22 seconds C. 2.2 seconds D. 0.22 seconds 196. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 470 seconds B. 47 seconds C. 4.7 seconds D. 0.47 seconds 197. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in parallel? A. 470 seconds B. 47 seconds C. 4.7 seconds D. 0.47 seconds 198. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in series? A. 55 seconds B. 110 seconds C. 220 seconds D. 440 seconds 199. What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 22 seconds B. 44 seconds C. 220 seconds D. 440 seconds 200. What is the time constant of a circuit having one 100-microfarad capacitor, one 220-microfarad capacitor, one 470- kilohm resistor and one 1-megohm resistor all in series? A. 68.8 seconds B. 101.1 seconds C. 220.0 seconds D. 470.0 seconds 201. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-microfarad capacitor and a 1-megohm resistor in parallel? A. 0.47 seconds B. 47 seconds C. 220 seconds D. 470 seconds 202. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 470-microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor? A. 221 seconds B. 221000 seconds C. 470 seconds D. 470000 seconds 203. What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor? A. 103 seconds B. 220 seconds C. 470 seconds D. 470000 seconds 204. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 12.64 seconds B. 0.02 seconds C. 1 second D. 7.98 seconds 205. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 2.71 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.04 seconds B. 0.02 seconds C. 7.36 seconds D. 12.64 seconds 206. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 1 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.01 seconds B. 0.02 seconds C. 0.04 seconds D. 0.06 seconds 207. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.08 seconds B. 0.6 seconds C. 0.4 seconds D. 0.2 seconds 208. How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.13 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.06 seconds B. 0.08 seconds C. 0.1 seconds D. 1.2 seconds 209. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 80 seconds B. 294 seconds C. 368 seconds D. 450 seconds 210. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 108 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 225 seconds B. 294 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 900 seconds 211. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 39.9 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 1350 seconds B. 900 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 225 seconds 212. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 40.2 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. Approximately 225 seconds B. Approximately 450 seconds C. Approximately 900 seconds D. Approximately 1350 seconds 213. How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 14.8 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. Approximately 900 seconds B. Approximately 1350 seconds C. Approximately 1804 seconds D. Approximately 2000 seconds 214. What is a Smith Chart? A. A graph for calculating impedance along transmission lines B. A graph for calculating great circle bearings C. A graph for calculating antenna height D. A graph for calculating radiation patterns 215. What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith Chart? A. Voltage and current circles B. Resistance and reactance circles C. Voltage and current lines D. Resistance and reactance lines 216. What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith Chart? A. Beam headings and radiation patterns B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines D. Circuit gain calculations 217. What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith Chart? A. Resistance and voltage B. Reactance and voltage C. Resistance and reactance D. Voltage and impedance 218. What is the only straight line on a blank Smith Chart? A. The reactance axis B. The resistance axis C. The voltage axis D. The current axis 219. What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith Chart? A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis C. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the prime center D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis 220. What are the curved lines on a Smith Chart? A. Portions of current circles B. Portions of voltage circles C. Portions of resistance circles D. Portions of reactance circles 221. What is the third family of circles which are added to a Smith Chart during the process of solving problems? A. Coaxial length circles B. Antenna length circles C. Standing wave ratio circles D. Radiation pattern circles 222. How are the wavelength scales on a Smith Chart calibrated? A. In portions of transmission line electrical frequency B. In portions of transmission line electrical wavelength C. In portions of antenna electrical wavelength D. In portions of antenna electrical frequency 223. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 20-ohm resistor, at 30 MHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 20 + j19 B. 20 - j19 C. 19 + j20 D. 19 - j20 224. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microhenry inductor in series with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 30 - j3 B. 30 + j3 C. 3 + j30 D. 3 - j30 225. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 500 MHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 40 + j31400 B. 40 - j31400 C. 31400 + j40 D. 31400 - j40 226. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4000-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 2490 ohms, / 51.5 degrees B. 4000 ohms, / 38.5 degrees C. 5112 ohms, / -38.5 degrees D. 2490 ohms, / -51.5 degrees 227. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.001-microfarad capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor, at 500 kHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 400 - j318 B. 318 - j400 C. 400 + j318 D. 318 + j400 228. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 121 ohms, / 35 degrees B. 141 ohms, / 45 degrees C. 161 ohms, / 55 degrees D. 181 ohms, / 65 degrees 229. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor all connected in series? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 100 ohms, / 90 degrees B. 10 ohms, / 0 degrees C. 100 ohms, / 0 degrees D. 10 ohms, / 100 degrees 230. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 240 ohms, / 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, / -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, / 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, / -53.1 degrees 231. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400- ohm resistor, all connected in series? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 500 ohms, / 37 degrees B. 400 ohms, / 27 degrees C. 300 ohms, / 17 degrees D. 200 ohms, / 10 degrees 232. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 400-ohm- reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 240 ohms, / 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms, / -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms, / 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms, / -53.1 degrees 233. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-millihenry inductor in series with a 200-ohm resistor, at 30 kHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 200 - j188 B. 200 + j188 C. 188 + j200 D. 188 - j200 234. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-millihenry inductor in series with a 600-ohm resistor, at 10 kHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 628 + j600 B. 628 - j600 C. 600 + j628 D. 600 - j628 235. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.01-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 150 - j159 B. 150 + j159 C. 159 + j150 D. 159 - j150 236. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 0.1-microfarad capacitor in series with a 40-ohm resistor, at 50 kHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 40 + j32 B. 40 - j32 C. 32 - j40 D. 32 + j40 237. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 1.0-microfarad capacitor in parallel with a 30-ohm resistor, at 5 MHz? (Specify your answer in rectangular coordinates.) A. 0.000034 + j.032 B. 0.032 + j.000034 C. 0.000034 - j.032 D. 0.032 - j.000034 238. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 121 ohms, / -25 degrees B. 141 ohms, / -45 degrees C. 161 ohms, / -65 degrees D. 191 ohms, / -85 degrees 239. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 31 ohms, / -15 degrees B. 51 ohms, / -25 degrees C. 71 ohms, / -45 degrees D. 91 ohms, / -65 degrees 240. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 400 ohms, / 27 degrees B. 500 ohms, / 37 degrees C. 600 ohms, / 47 degrees D. 700 ohms, / 57 degrees 241. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 71 ohms, / 45 degrees B. 81 ohms, / 55 degrees C. 91 ohms, / 65 degrees D. 100 ohms, / 75 degrees 242. What is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance capacitor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? (Specify your answer in polar coordinates.) A. 200 ohms, / -10 degrees B. 300 ohms, / -17 degrees C. 400 ohms, / -27 degrees D. 500 ohms, / -37 degrees SUBELEMENT 4BF -- Circuit Components (4 questions) 243. What is an enhancement-mode FET? A. An FET with a channel that blocks voltage through the gate B. An FET with a channel that allows a current when the gate voltage is zero C. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate D. An FET without a channel; no current occurs with zero gate voltage 244. What is a depletion-mode FET? A. An FET that has a channel with no gate voltage applied; a current flows with zero gate voltage B. An FET that has a channel that blocks current when the gate voltage is zero C. An FET without a channel; no current flows with zero gate voltage D. An FET without a channel to hinder current through the gate 245. What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel MOSFET? A B C D 246. What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel MOSFET? A B C D 247. What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET? A B C D 248. What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel dual-gate MOSFET? A B C D 249. Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes? A. The gate-protective Zener diode provides a voltage reference to provide the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage B. The gate-protective Zener diode protects the substrate from excessive voltages C. The gate-protective Zener diode keeps the gate voltage within specifications to prevent the device from overheating D. The gate-protective Zener diode prevents the gate insulation from being punctured by small static charges or excessive voltages 250. What do the initials CMOS stand for? A. Common mode oscillating system B. Complementary mica-oxide silicon C. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor D. Complementary metal-oxide substrate 251. Why are special precautions necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices? A. They are susceptible to damage from static charges B. They have fragile leads that may break off C. They have micro-welded semiconductor junctions that are susceptible to breakage D. They are light sensitive 252. What is the schematic symbol for an N-channel junction FET? A B C D 253. How does the input impedance of a field-effect transistor compare with that of a bipolar transistor? A. One cannot compare input impedance without first knowing the supply voltage B. An FET has low input impedance; a bipolar transistor has high input impedance C. The input impedance of FETs and bipolar transistors is the same D. An FET has high input impedance; a bipolar transistor has low input impedance 254. What are the three terminals of a field-effect transistor? A. Gate 1, gate 2, drain B. Emitter, base, collector C. Emitter, base 1, base 2 D. Gate, drain, source 255. What is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? A B C D 256. What are the two basic types of junction field-effect transistors? A. N-channel and P-channel B. High power and low power C. MOSFET and GaAsFET D. Silicon FET and germanium FET 257. What is an operational amplifier? A. A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier unit B. A high-gain, direct-coupled audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier unit C. An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit D. A program subroutine that calculates the gain of an RF amplifier 258. What is the schematic symbol for an operational amplifier? A B C D 259. What would be the characteristics of the ideal op-amp? A. Zero input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response B. Infinite input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response C. Zero input impedance, zero output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response D. Infinite input impedance, infinite output impedance, infinite gain, flat frequency response 260. What determines the gain of a closed-loop op-amp circuit? A. The external feedback network B. The collector-to-base capacitance of the PNP stage C. The power supply voltage D. The PNP collector load 261. What is meant by the term op-amp offset voltage? A. The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage B. The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the following stage C. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the op-amp in a closed-loop condition D. The potential between the amplifier-input terminals of the op-amp in an open-loop condition 262. What is the input impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp? A. 100 ohms B. 1000 ohms C. Very low D. Very high 263. What is the output impedance of a theoretically ideal op-amp? A. Very low B. Very high C. 100 ohms D. 1000 ohms 264. What is a phase-locked loop circuit? A. An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator B. An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator C. An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential input D. An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter and voltage-controlled oscillator 265. What functions are performed by a phase-locked loop? A. Wideband AF and RF power amplification B. Comparison of two digital input signals, digital pulse counter C. Photovolatic conversion, optical coupling D. Frequency synthesis, FM demodulation 266. A circuit compares the output from a voltage-controlled oscillator and a frequency standard. The difference between the two frequencies produces an error voltage that changes the voltage-controlled oscillator frequency. What is the name of the circuit? A. A doubly balanced mixer B. A phase-locked loop C. A differential voltage amplifier D. A variable frequency oscillator 267. What do the initials TTL stand for? A. Resistor-transistor logic B. Transistor-transistor logic C. Diode-transistor logic D. Emitter-coupled logic 268. What is the recommended power supply voltage for TTL series integrated circuits? A. 12.00 volts B. 50.00 volts C. 5.00 volts D. 13.60 volts 269. What logic state do the inputs of a TTL device assume if they are left open? A. A high logic state B. A low logic state C. The device becomes randomized and will not provide consistent high or low logic states D. Open inputs on a TTL device are ignored 270. What level of input voltage is high in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power supply? A. 2.0 to 5.5 volts B. 1.5 to 3.0 volts C. 1.0 to 1.5 volts D. -5.0 to -2.0 volts 271. What level of input voltage is low in a TTL device operating with a 5-volt power supply? A. -2.0 to -5.5 volts B. 2.0 to 5.5 volts C. -0.6 to 0.8 volts D. -0.8 to 0.4 volts 272. Why do circuits containing TTL devices have several bypass capacitors per printed circuit board? A. To prevent RFI to receivers B. To keep the switching noise within the circuit, thus eliminating RFI C. To filter out switching harmonics D. To prevent switching transients from appearing on the supply line 273. What is a CMOS IC? A. A chip with only P-channel transistors B. A chip with P-channel and N-channel transistors C. A chip with only N-channel transistors D. A chip with only bipolar transistors 274. What is one major advantage of CMOS over other devices? A. Small size B. Low current consumption C. Low cost D. Ease of circuit design 275. Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? A. Larger bypass capacitors are used in CMOS circuit design B. The input switching threshold is about two times the power supply voltage C. The input switching threshold is about one-half the power supply voltage D. Input signals are stronger 276. What is the name for a vacuum tube that is commonly found in television cameras used for amateur television? A. A traveling-wave tube B. A klystron tube C. A vidicon tube D. A cathode-ray tube 277. How is the electron beam deflected in a vidicon? A. By varying the beam voltage B. By varying the bias voltage on the beam forming grids inside the tube C. By varying the beam current D. By varying electromagnetic fields 278. What type of CRT deflection is better when high-frequency waves are to be displayed on the screen? A. Electromagnetic B. Tubular C. Radar D. Electrostatic SUBELEMENT 4BG -- Practical Circuits (4 questions) 279. What is a flip-flop circuit? A. A binary sequential logic element with one stable state B. A binary sequential logic element with eight stable states C. A binary sequential logic element with four stable states D. A binary sequential logic element with two stable states 280. How many bits of information can be stored in a single flip-flop circuit? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 281. What is a bistable multivibrator circuit? A. An "AND" gate B. An "OR" gate C. A flip-flop D. A clock 282. How many output changes are obtained for every two trigger pulses applied to the input of a bistable T flip-flop circuit? A. No output level changes B. One output level change C. Two output level changes D. Four output level changes 283. The frequency of an AC signal can be divided electronically by what type of digital circuit? A. A free-running multivibrator B. An OR gate C. A bistable multivibrator D. An astable multivibrator 284. What type of digital IC is also known as a latch? A. A decade counter B. An OR gate C. A flip-flop D. An op-amp 285. How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 4? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8 286. What is an astable multivibrator? A. A circuit that alternates between two stable states B. A circuit that alternates between a stable state and an unstable state C. A circuit set to block either a 0 pulse or a 1 pulse and pass the other D. A circuit that alternates between two unstable states 287. What is a monostable multivibrator? A. A circuit that can be switched momentarily to the opposite binary state and then returns after a set time to its original state B. A "clock" circuit that produces a continuous square wave oscillating between 1 and 0 C. A circuit designed to store one bit of data in either the 0 or the 1 configuration D. A circuit that maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage 288. What is an AND gate? A. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1" B. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1" C. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if only one input is a logic "1" D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" 289. What is the schematic symbol for an AND gate? A B C D 290. What is a NAND gate? A. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "0" B. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1" C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1" D. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only when all inputs are logic "1" 291. What is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? A B C D 292. What is an OR gate? A. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if any input is logic "1" B. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any input is logic "1" C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1" D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0" 293. What is the schematic symbol for an OR gate? A B C D 294. What is a NOR gate? A. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output only if all inputs are logic "0" B. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output only if all inputs are logic "1" C. A circuit that produces a logic "0" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1" D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output if some but not all of its inputs are logic "1" 295. What is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? A B C D 296. What is a NOT gate? A. A circuit that produces a logic "O" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa B. A circuit that does not allow data transmission when its input is high C. A circuit that allows data transmission only when its input is high D. A circuit that produces a logic "1" at its output when the input is logic "1" and vice versa 297. What is the schematic symbol for a NOT gate? A B C D 298. What is a truth table? A. A table of logic symbols that indicate the high logic states of an op-amp B. A diagram showing logic states when the digital device's output is true C. A list of input combinations and their corresponding outputs that characterizes a digital device's function D. A table of logic symbols that indicates the low logic states of an op-amp 299. In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? A. A low level B. A positive-transition level C. A negative-transition level D. A high level 300. In a positive-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0? A. A low level B. A positive-transition level C. A negative-transition level D. A high level 301. In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 1? A. A low level B. A positive-transition level C. A negative-transition level D. A high level 302. In a negative-logic circuit, what level is used to represent a logic 0? A. A low level B. A positive-transition level C. A negative-transition level D. A high level 303. What is a crystal-controlled marker generator? A. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of frequencies B. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the craft's location relative to the inner and outer markers at airports C. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and amplitude can be varied over a wide range D. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of reference signals at known frequency intervals 304. What additional circuitry is required in a 100-kHz crystal-controlled marker generator to provide markers at 50 and 25 kHz? A. An emitter-follower B. Two frequency multipliers C. Two flip-flops D. A voltage divider 305. What is the purpose of a prescaler circuit? A. It converts the output of a JK flip-flop to that of an RS flip-flop B. It multiplies an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency C. It prevents oscillation in a low frequency counter circuit D. It divides an HF signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency 306. What does the accuracy of a frequency counter depend on? A. The internal crystal reference B. A voltage-regulated power supply with an unvarying output C. Accuracy of the AC input frequency to the power supply D. Proper balancing of the power-supply diodes 307. How many states does a decade counter digital IC have? A. 6 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 308. What is the function of a decade counter digital IC? A. Decode a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display B. Produce one output pulse for every ten input pulses C. Produce ten output pulses for every input pulse D. Add two decimal numbers 309. What are the advantages of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter? A. Op-amps are more rugged and can withstand more abuse than can LC elements B. Op-amps are fixed at one frequency C. Op-amps are available in more styles and types than are LC elements D. Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss 310. What determines the gain and frequency characteristics of an op-amp RC active filter? A. Values of capacitances and resistances built into the op-amp B. Values of capacitances and resistances external to the op-amp C. Voltage and frequency of DC input to the op-amp power supply D. Regulated DC voltage output from the op-amp power supply 311. What are the principle uses of an op-amp RC active filter in amateur circuitry? A. Op-amp circuits are used as high-pass filters to block RFI at the input to receivers B. Op-amp circuits are used as low-pass filters between transmitters and transmission lines C. Op-amp circuits are used as filters for smoothing power-supply output D. Op-amp circuits are used as audio filters for receivers 312. What type of capacitors should be used in an op-amp RC active filter circuit? A. Electrolytic B. Disc ceramic C. Polystyrene D. Paper dielectric 313. How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in a multisection op-amp RC audio filter circuit? A. Restrict both gain and Q B. Restrict gain, but increase Q C. Restrict Q, but increase gain D. Increase both gain and Q 314. Where should an op-amp RC active audio filter be placed in an amateur receiver? A. In the IF strip, immediately before the detector B. In the audio circuitry immediately before the speaker or phone jack C. Between the balanced modulator and frequency multiplier D. In the low-level audio stages 315. What parameter must be selected when designing an audio filter using an op-amp? A. Bandpass characteristics B. Desired current gain C. Temperature coefficient D. Output-offset overshoot 316. What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver? A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept B. Cost and availability C. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range D. Bandwidth and noise figure 317. What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? A. The noise floor of the receiver B. The power-supply output ripple C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion D. The input impedance to the detector 318. What is the theoretical minimum noise floor of a receiver with a 400-Hertz bandwidth? A. -141 dBm B. -148 dBm C. -174 dBm D. -180 dBm 319. How can selectivity be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver? A. By using an audio filter B. By using a preselector C. By using an additional RF amplifier stage D. By using an additional IF amplifier stage 320. A receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of amateur signals? A. CW B. SSB voice C. Double-sideband AM voice D. FSK RTTY 321. What occurs during A1A reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a receiver? A. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage B. Output-offset overshoot C. Cross-modulation distortion D. Filter ringing 322. What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an amateur emission F1B receiver? A. 100 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 6000 Hz D. 2400 Hz 323. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of amateur signals? A. SSB voice B. Double-sideband AM C. CW D. FSK RTTY 324. What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an emission J3E receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 4.8 kHz 325. What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage C. Thermal-noise distortion D. Filter ringing 326. How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? A. Filter bandwidth should be slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth B. Filter bandwidth should be approximately half the received- signal bandwidth C. Filter bandwidth should be approximately two times the received-signal bandwidth D. Filter bandwidth should be approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth 327. What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an emission F3E receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 15 kHz 328. How can selectivity be achieved in the IF circuitry of a communications receiver? A. Incorporate a means of varying the supply voltage to the local oscillator circuitry B. Replace the standard JFET mixer with a bipolar transistor followed by a capacitor of the proper value C. Remove AGC action from the IF stage and confine it to the audio stage only D. Incorporate a high-Q filter 329. What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver? A. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to which the receiver can be tuned B. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver, referenced to one milliwatt C. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products D. The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the tuning knob 330. What is the term for the ratio between the largest tolerable receiver input signal and the minimum discernible signal? A. Intermodulation distortion B. Noise floor C. Noise figure D. Dynamic range 331. What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? A. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted C. Cross-modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals 332. The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of strong signals outside the amateur band of interest is indicated by what parameter? A. Noise figure B. Blocking dynamic range C. Signal-to-noise ratio D. Audio output 333. What is meant by the term noise figure of a communications receiver? A. The level of noise entering the receiver from the antenna B. The relative strength of a received signal 3 kHz removed from the carrier frequency C. The level of noise generated in the front end and succeeding stages of a receiver D. The ability of a receiver to reject unwanted signals at frequencies close to the desired one 334. Which stage of a receiver primarily establishes its noise figure? A. The audio stage B. The IF strip C. The RF stage D. The local oscillator 335. What is an inverting op-amp circuit? A. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase B. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output signals are in phase C. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase D. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input impedance is held at zero, while the output impedance is high 336. What is a noninverting op-amp circuit? A. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output signals are 180 degrees out of phase B. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output signals are in phase C. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input and output signals are 90 degrees out of phase D. An operational amplifier circuit connected such that the input impedance is held at zero while the output impedance is high 337. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 1000 ohms and Rf is 100 kilohms? A. 0.1 B. 1 C. 10 D. 100 338. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 1800 ohms and Rf is 68 kilohms? A. 1 B. 0.03 C. 38 D. 76 339. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 3300 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms? A. 28 B. 14 C. 7 D. 0.07 340. What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure 4BG-5 when R1 is 10 ohms and Rf is 47 kilohms? A. 0.00021 B. 9400 C. 4700 D. 2350 341. How does the gain of a theoretically ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? A. The gain increases linearly with increasing frequency B. The gain decreases linearly with increasing frequency C. The gain decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency D. The gain does not vary with frequency 342. What determines the input impedance in a FET common-source amplifier? A. The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance between the drain and substrate B. The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance between the source and drain C. The input impedance is essentially determined by the gate biasing network D. The input impedance is essentially determined by the resistance between the source and substrate 343. What determines the output impedance in a FET common-source amplifier? A. The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain resistor B. The output impedance is essentially determined by the input impedance of the FET C. The output impedance is essentially determined by the drain-supply voltage D. The output impedance is essentially determined by the gate supply voltage 344. What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure 4BG-7 when L is 10 microhenrys, Cf is 156 picofarads, and Cv is 50 picofarads maximum and 2 picofarads minimum? A. 3508 through 4004 kHz B. 6998 through 7360 kHz C. 13.396 through 14.402 MHz D. 49.998 through 54.101 MHz 345. What frequency range will be tuned by the circuit in Figure 4BG-7 when L is 30 microhenrys, Cf is 200 picofarads, and Cv is 80 picofarads maximum and 10 picofarads minimum? A. 1737 through 2005 kHz B. 3507 through 4004 kHz C. 7002 through 7354 kHz D. 14.990 through 15.020 MHz 346. What is the purpose of a bypass capacitor? A. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit B. It removes direct current from the circuit by shunting DC to ground C. It removes alternating current by providing a low impedance path to ground D. It acts as a voltage divider 347. What is the purpose of a coupling capacitor? A. It blocks direct current and passes alternating current B. It blocks alternating current and passes direct current C. It increases the resonant frequency of the circuit D. It decreases the resonant frequency of the circuit SUBELEMENT 4BH -- Signals and Emissions (4 questions) 348. In a pulse-width modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. Pulse duration B. Pulse frequency C. Pulse amplitude D. Pulse intensity 349. What is the type of modulation in which the modulating signal varies the duration of the transmitted pulse? A. Amplitude modulation B. Frequency modulation C. Pulse-width modulation D. Pulse-height modulation 350. In a pulse-position modulation system, what parameter does the modulating signal vary? A. The number of pulses per second B. Both the frequency and amplitude of the pulses C. The duration of the pulses D. The time at which each pulse occurs 351. Why is the transmitter peak power in a pulse modulation system much greater than its average power? A. The signal duty cycle is less than 100% B. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voice-modulated C. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when voltage spikes are generated within the modulator D. The signal reaches peak amplitude only when the pulses are also amplitude-modulated 352. What is one way that voice is transmitted in a pulse-width modulation system? A. A standard pulse is varied in amplitude by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant B. The position of a standard pulse is varied by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant C. A standard pulse is varied in duration by an amount depending on the voice waveform at that instant D. The number of standard pulses per second varies depending on the voice waveform at that instant 353. What digital code consists of elements having unequal length? A. ASCII B. AX.25 C. Baudot D. Morse code 354. What digital communications system is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. ACSSB B. AMTOR C. Packet radio D. Spread spectrum 355. The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level is responsible for the actual transmission of data and handshaking signals? A. The physical layer B. The transport layer C. The communications layer D. The synchronization layer 356. The International Organization for Standardization has developed a seven-level reference model for a packet-radio communications structure. What level arranges the bits into frames and controls data flow? A. The transport layer B. The link layer C. The communications layer D. The synchronization layer 357. What is one advantage of using the ASCII code, with its larger character set, instead of the Baudot code? A. ASCII includes built-in error-correction features B. ASCII characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot characters C. It is possible to transmit upper and lower case text D. The larger character set allows store-and-forward control characters to be added to a message 358. What type of error control system does Mode A AMTOR use? A. Each character is sent twice B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS C. Mode A AMTOR does not include an error control system D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed 359. What type of error control system does Mode B AMTOR use? A. Each character is sent twice B. The receiving station checks the calculated frame check sequence (FCS) against the transmitted FCS C. Mode B AMTOR does not include an error control system D. The receiving station automatically requests repeats when needed 360. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY data pulse? A. 11 milliseconds B. 40 milliseconds C. 31 milliseconds D. 22 milliseconds 361. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY start pulse? A. 11 milliseconds B. 22 milliseconds C. 31 milliseconds D. 40 milliseconds 362. What is the duration of a 45-baud Baudot RTTY stop pulse? A. 11 milliseconds B. 18 milliseconds C. 31 milliseconds D. 40 milliseconds 363. What is the primary advantage of AMTOR over Baudot RTTY? A. AMTOR characters contain fewer information bits than Baudot characters B. AMTOR includes an error detection system C. Surplus radioteletype machines that use the AMTOR code are readily available D. Photographs can be transmitted using AMTOR 364. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-baud Baudot emission F1B transmission? A. 45 Hz B. 250 Hz C. 442 Hz D. 600 Hz 365. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 45-baud Baudot emission J2B transmission? A. 45 Hz B. 249 Hz C. 442 Hz D. 600 Hz 366. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot emission F1B transmission? A. 250 Hz B. 278 Hz C. 442 Hz D. 600 Hz 367. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 74-baud Baudot emission J2B transmission? A. 250 Hz B. 278 Hz C. 442 Hz D. 600 Hz 368. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code emission A1A transmission? A. Approximately 13 Hz B. Approximately 26 Hz C. Approximately 52 Hz D. Approximately 104 Hz 369. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 13-WPM international Morse code emission J2A transmission? A. Approximately 13 Hz B. Approximately 26 Hz C. Approximately 52 Hz D. Approximately 104 Hz 370. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 1000-Hertz shift, 1200-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission? A. 1000 Hz B. 1200 Hz C. 440 Hz D. 2400 Hz 371. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission? A. 15.36 kHz B. 9.6 kHz C. 4.8 kHz D. 5.76 kHz 372. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 4800-Hertz frequency shift, 9600-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission? A. 15.36 kHz B. 9.6 kHz C. 4.8 kHz D. 5.76 kHz 373. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international Morse code emission A1A transmission? A. Approximately 5 Hz B. Approximately 10 Hz C. Approximately 20 Hz D. Approximately 40 Hz 374. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 5-WPM international Morse code emission J2A transmission? A. Approximately 5 Hz B. Approximately 10 Hz C. Approximately 20 Hz D. Approximately 40 Hz 375. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-baud ASCII emission F1B transmission? A. 304 Hz B. 314 Hz C. 608 Hz D. 628 Hz 376. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 110-baud ASCII emission J2B transmission? A. 304 Hz B. 314 Hz C. 608 Hz D. 628 Hz 377. What is the necessary bandwidth of a 170-Hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII emission F1D transmission? A. 0 Hz B. 0.3 kHz C. 0.5 kHz D. 1.0 kHz 378. What is the necessary bandwidth for a 170-Hertz shift, 300-baud ASCII emission J2D transmission? A. 0 Hz B. 0.3 kHz C. 0.5 kHz D. 1.0 kHz 379. What is amplitude compandored single sideband? A. Reception of single sideband with a conventional CW receiver B. Reception of single sideband with a conventional FM receiver C. Single sideband incorporating speech compression at the transmitter and speech expansion at the receiver D. Single sideband incorporating speech expansion at the transmitter and speech compression at the receiver 380. What is meant by compandoring? A. Compressing speech at the transmitter and expanding it at the receiver B. Using an audio-frequency signal to produce pulse-length modulation C. Combining amplitude and frequency modulation to produce a single-sideband signal D. Detecting and demodulating a single-sideband signal by converting it to a pulse-modulated signal 381. What is the purpose of a pilot tone in an amplitude compandored single sideband system? A. It permits rapid tuning of a mobile receiver B. It replaces the suppressed carrier at the receiver C. It permits rapid change of frequency to escape high-powered interference D. It acts as a beacon to indicate the present propagation characteristic of the band 382. What is the approximate frequency of the pilot tone in an amplitude compandored single sideband system? A. 1 kHz B. 5 MHz C. 455 kHz D. 3 kHz 383. How many more voice transmissions can be packed into a given frequency band for amplitude compandored single sideband systems over conventional emission F3E systems? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 384. What term describes a wide-bandwidth communications system in which the RF carrier varies according to some predetermined sequence? A. Amplitude compandored single sideband B. AMTOR C. Time-domain frequency modulation D. Spread spectrum communication 385. What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the center frequency of a conventional carrier is altered many times per second in accordance with a pseudo-random list of channels? A. Frequency hopping B. Direct sequence C. Time-domain frequency modulation D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum 386. What term is used to describe a spread spectrum communications system in which a very fast binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier? A. Frequency hopping B. Direct sequence C. Binary phase-shift keying D. Phase compandored spread spectrum 387. What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum positive excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak voltage B. Inverse peak negative voltage C. RMS voltage D. Peak positive voltage 388. What is the term for the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of a signal as viewed on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak voltage B. Inverse peak positive voltage C. RMS voltage D. Peak negative voltage 389. What is the easiest voltage amplitude dimension to measure by viewing a pure sine wave signal on an oscilloscope? A. Peak-to-peak voltage B. RMS voltage C. Average voltage D. DC voltage 390. What is the relationship between the peak-to-peak voltage and the peak voltage amplitude in a symmetrical wave form? A. 1:1 B. 2:1 C. 3:1 D. 4:1 391. What input-amplitude parameter is valuable in evaluating the signal-handling capability of a Class A amplifier? A. Peak voltage B. Average voltage C. RMS voltage D. Resting voltage SUBELEMENT 4BI -- Antennas and Feed lines (4 questions) 392. What is an isotropic radiator? A. A hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna B. In the northern hemisphere, an antenna whose directive pattern is constant in southern directions C. An antenna high enough in the air that its directive pattern is substantially unaffected by the ground beneath it D. An antenna whose directive pattern is substantially unaffected by the spacing of the elements 393. When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator? A. When comparing the gains of directional antennas B. When testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio C. When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission in a southerly direction D. When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter 394. What theoretical reference antenna provides a comparison for antenna measurements? A. Quarter-wave vertical B. Yagi C. Bobtail curtain D. Isotropic radiator 395. What purpose does an isotropic radiator serve? A. It is used to compare signal strengths (at a distant point) of different transmitters B. It is used as a reference for antenna gain measurements C. It is used as a dummy load for tuning transmitters D. It is used to measure the standing-wave-ratio on a transmission line 396. How much gain does a 1/2-wavelength dipole have over an isotropic radiator? A. About 1.5 dB B. About 2.1 dB C. About 3.0 dB D. About 6.0 dB 397. How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? A. About 3.9 dB B. About 6.0 dB C. About 8.1 dB D. About 10.0 dB 398. How much gain does an antenna have over a 1/2-wavelength dipole when it has 12 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? A. About 6.1 dB B. About 9.9 dB C. About 12.0 dB D. About 14.1 dB 399. What is the antenna pattern for an isotropic radiator? A. A figure-8 B. A unidirectional cardioid C. A parabola D. A sphere 400. What type of directivity pattern does an isotropic radiator have? A. A figure-8 B. A unidirectional cardioid C. A parabola D. A sphere 401. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? A. Unidirectional cardioid B. Omnidirectional C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas 402. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase? A. Unidirectional cardioid B. Figure-8 end-fire C. Figure-8 broadside D. Omnidirectional 403. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2 wavelength apart and fed in phase? A. Omnidirectional B. Cardioid unidirectional C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas 404. How far apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas be spaced in order to produce a figure-8 pattern that is broadside to the plane of the verticals when fed in phase? A. 1/8 wavelength B. 1/4 wavelength C. 1/2 wavelength D. 1 wavelength 405. How many 1/2 wavelengths apart should two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas be spaced to produce a figure-8 pattern that is in line with the vertical antennas when they are fed 180 degrees out of phase? A. One half wavelength apart B. Two half wavelengths apart C. Three half wavelengths apart D. Four half wavelengths apart 406. What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? A. Omnidirectional B. Cardioid unidirectional C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas 407. What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? A. Omnidirectional B. Cardioid unidirectional C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas 408. What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/8 wavelength apart and fed in phase? A. Omnidirectional B. Cardioid unidirectional C. Figure-8 broadside to the antennas D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas 409. What is the radiation pattern for two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4 wavelength apart and fed in phase? A. Substantially unidirectional B. Elliptical C. Cardioid unidirectional D. Figure-8 end-fire in line with the antennas 410. What is a resonant rhombic antenna? A. A unidirectional antenna, each of whose sides is equal to half a wavelength and which is terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance B. A bidirectional antenna open at the end opposite that to which the transmission line is connected and with each side approximately equal to one wavelength C. An antenna with an LC network at each vertex (other than that to which the transmission line is connected) tuned to resonate at the operating frequency D. A high-frequency antenna, each of whose sides contains traps for changing the resonance to match the band in use 411. What is a nonresonant rhombic antenna? A. A unidirectional antenna terminated in a resistance equal to its characteristic impedance B. An open-ended bidirectional antenna C. An antenna resonant at approximately double the frequency of the intended band of operation D. A horizontal triangular antenna consisting of two adjacent sides and the long diagonal of a resonant rhombic antenna 412. What are the advantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna? A. Wide frequency range, high gain and high front-to-back ratio B. High front-to-back ratio, compact size and high gain C. Unidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and compact size D. Bidirectional radiation pattern, high gain and wide frequency range 413. What are the disadvantages of a nonresonant rhombic antenna? A. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a narrow bandwidth B. It requires a large area for proper installation and has a low front-to-back ratio C. It requires a large amount of aluminum tubing and has a low front-to-back ratio D. It requires a large area and four sturdy supports for proper installation 414. What is the characteristic impedance at the input of a nonresonant rhombic antenna? A. 50 to 55 ohms B. 70 to 75 ohms C. 300 to 350 ohms D. 700 to 800 ohms 415. What is the effect of a terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna? A. It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter B. It changes the radiation pattern from essentially bidirectional to essentially unidirectional C. It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization D. It decreases the ground loss 416. What should be the value of the terminating resistor on a rhombic antenna? A. About 50 ohms B. About 75 ohms C. About 800 ohms D. About 1800 ohms 417. What factors determine the receiving antenna gain required at an amateur station in earth operation? A. Height, transmitter power and antennas of satellite B. Length of transmission line and impedance match between receiver and transmission line C. Preamplifier location on transmission line and presence or absence of RF amplifier stages D. Height of earth antenna and satellite orbit 418. What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur station in earth operation? A. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity B. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite transmitter power 419. What factors determine the EIRP required by an amateur station in telecommand operation? A. Path loss, earth antenna gain, signal-to-noise ratio B. Satellite antennas and height, satellite receiver sensitivity C. Satellite transmitter power and orientation of ground receiving antenna D. Elevation of satellite above horizon, signal-to-noise ratio, satellite transmitter power 420. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change when the operating frequency is doubled? A. Gain does not change B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707 C. Gain increases 6 dB D. Gain increases 3 dB 421. What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased? A. The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is increased B. The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is increased C. The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased 422. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 20 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A. 10.1 degrees B. 20.3 degrees C. 45.0 degrees D. 60.9 degrees 423. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 30 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A. 3.2 degrees B. 6.4 degrees C. 37 degrees D. 60.4 degrees 424. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 15 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A. 72 degrees B. 52 degrees C. 36.1 degrees D. 3.61 degrees 425. What is the beamwidth of a symmetrical pattern antenna with a gain of 12 dB as compared to an isotropic radiator? A. 34.8 degrees B. 45.0 degrees C. 58.0 degrees D. 51.0 degrees 426. How is circular polarization produced using linearly-polarized antennas? A. Stack two Yagis, fed 90 degrees out of phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes B. Stack two Yagis, fed in phase, to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes C. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements in the same plane, and fed 90 degrees out of phase D. Arrange two Yagis perpendicular to each other, with the driven elements in the same plane, and fed in phase 427. Why does an antenna system for earth operation (for communications through a satellite) need to have rotators for both azimuth and elevation control? A. In order to point the antenna above the horizon to avoid terrestrial interference B. Satellite antennas require two rotators because they are so large and heavy C. In order to track the satellite as it orbits the earth D. The elevation rotator points the antenna at the satellite and the azimuth rotator changes the antenna polarization 428. What term describes a method used to match a high-impedance transmission line to a lower impedance antenna by connecting the line to the driven element in two places, spaced a fraction of a wavelength on each side of the driven element center? A. The gamma matching system B. The delta matching system C. The omega matching system D. The stub matching system 429. What term describes an unbalanced feed system in which the driven element is fed both at the center of that element and a fraction of a wavelength to one side of center? A. The gamma matching system B. The delta matching system C. The omega matching system D. The stub matching system 430. What term describes a method of antenna impedance matching that uses a short section of transmission line connected to the antenna feed line near the antenna and perpendicular to the feed line? A. The gamma matching system B. The delta matching system C. The omega matching system D. The stub matching system 431. What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the 20-meter band? A. 70 pF B. 140 pF C. 200 pF D. 0.2 pF 432. What should be the approximate capacitance of the resonating capacitor in a gamma matching circuit on a 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna for the 10-meter band? A. 70 pF B. 140 pF C. 200 pF D. 0.2 pF 433. What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. A capacitive reactance B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line C. An inductive reactance D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage 434. What kind of impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line B. An inductive reactance C. A capacitive reactance D. The same as the input impedance of the final generator stage 435. What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. A very high impedance B. A very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line D. The same as the generator output impedance 436. What kind of impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. A very high impedance B. A very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage 437. What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line B. An inductive reactance C. A capacitive reactance D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage 438. What kind of impedance does a 3/8-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. A capacitive reactance B. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line C. An inductive reactance D. The same as the input impedance to the final generator stage 439. What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is shorted at the far end? A. A very high impedance B. A very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line D. The same as the output impedance of the generator 440. What kind of impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end? A. A very high impedance B. A very low impedance C. The same as the characteristic impedance of the line D. The same as the output impedance of the generator 1. B (4BA-1A.1) 2. A (4BA-1A.2) 3. A (4BA-1A.3) 4. D (4BA-1A.4) 5. C (4BA-1A.5) 6. A (4BA-1B.1) 7. B (4BA-1B.2) 8. D (4BA-1B.3) 9. D (4BA-1B.4) 10. B (4BA-1C.1) 11. B (4BA-1C.2) 12. A (4BA-1C.3) 13. B (4BA-1D.1) 14. A (4BA-1E.1) 15. B (4BA-1E.2) 16. A (4BA-2A.1) 17. B (4BA-2B.1) 18. A (4BA-2B.2) 19. C (4BA-2C.1) 20. C (4BA-2D.1) 21. B (4BA-3A.1) 22. A (4BA-3B.1) 23. C (4BA-3C.1) 24. D (4BA-3D.1) 25. A (4BA-3E.1) 26. D (4BA-3F.1) 27. A (4BA-3G.1) 28. C (4BA-3H.1) 29. A (4BA-3H.2) 30. C (4BA-3I.1) 31. C (4BA-4A.1) 32. A (4BA-4B.1) 33. B (4BA-4C-1.1) 34. D (4BA-4C-2.1) 35. C (4BA-4D-1.1) 36. D (4BA-4E-1.1) 37. D (4BA-4E-2.1) 38. D (4BA-4E-4.1) 39. C (4BA-4E-4.2) 40. D (4BA-4E-4.3) 41. A (4BA-4F-1.1) 42. A (4BA-4F-2.1) 43. C (4BA-5A.1) 44. B (4BA-5B.1) 45. A (4BA-5C.1) 46. A (4BA-5C.2) 47. A (4BA-5C.3) 48. A (4BA-5C.4) 49. A (4BA-5C.5) 50. A (4BA-5C.6) 51. B (4BA-5E.1) 52. A (4BA-5D.1) 53. A (4BA-5E.2) 54. D (4BA-5F.1) 55. B (4BA-5F.2) 56. A (4BA-5F.3) 57. D (4BA-5F.4) 58. A (4BA-5G.1) 59. B (4BA-5G.2) 60. A (4BA-5G.3) 61. C (4BA-5G.4) 62. B (4BA-5G.5) 63. A (4BA-5G.6) 64. B (4BA-6A.1) 65. B (4BA-6A.2) 66. B (4BA-6B.1) 67. B (4BA-6B.2) 68. B (4BA-6B.3) 69. B (4BA-6B.4) 70. A (4BA-6B.5) 71. D (4BA-6C.1) 72. A (4BA-6C.2) 73. C (4BA-6C.3) 74. D (4BA-6D.1) 75. A (4BA-6D.2) 76. A (4BA-7A-1.1) 77. D (4BA-7A-1.2) 78. A (4BA-7A-1.3) 79. C (4BA-7A-1.4) 80. C (4BA-7A-1.5) 81. D (4BA-7A-1.6) 82. C (4BA-7A-1.7) 83. D (4BA-7A-1.8) 84. A (4BA-7A-2.1) 85. D (4BA-7A-2.2) 86. A (4BA-7A-2.3) 87. A (4BA-7A-2.4) 88. D (4BA-7A-2.5) 89. D (4BA-7A-2.6) 90. D (4BA-7B.1) 91. D (4BA-7B.2) 92. A (4BA-7B.3) 93. C (4BA-7B.4) 94. A (4BA-7C.1) 95. B (4BA-7C.2) 96. B (4BA-7C.3) 97. D (4BA-7C.4) 98. C (4BA-7C.5) 99. B (4BA-7C.6) 100. A (4BA-7C.7) 101. C (4BA-7C.8) 102. C (4BA-7C.9) 103. D (4BA-7D.1) 104. A (4BA-7D.2) 105. C (4BA-7D.3) 106. B (4BA-7D.4) 107. B (4BA-7D.5) 108. C (4BA-7E.1) 109. B (4BA-7E.2) 110. A (4BA-7E.3) 111. D (4BA-7E.4) 112. A (4BA-7E.5) 113. B (4BA-7E.6) 114. A (4BA-7F.1) 115. B (4BA-7F.2) 116. D (4BA-7F.3) 117. B (4BA-7F.4) 118. C (4BB-1A.1) 119. A (4BB-1A.2) 120. C (4BB-1A.3) 121. D (4BB-1B.1) 122. B (4BB-1B.2) 123. B (4BB-1B.3) 124. B (4BB-1B.4) 125. B (4BB-1C.1) 126. A (4BB-1C.2) 127. D (4BB-1D.1) 128. A (4BB-1D.2) 129. B (4BB-1D.3) 130. A (4BB-2A.1) 131. C (4BB-2A.2) 132. C (4BB-2A.3) 133. B (4BB-2A.4) 134. A (4BB-2A.5) 135. D (4BB-2A.6) 136. C (4BB-2A.7) 137. B (4BB-2A.8) 138. C (4BB-2A.9) 139. D (4BC-1.1) 140. B (4BC-1.2) 141. A (4BC-1.3) 142. D (4BC-1.4) 143. B (4BC-1.5) 144. B (4BC-2.1) 145. C (4BC-2.2) 146. A (4BC-3.1) 147. C (4BC-3.2) 148. C (4BC-3.3) 149. C (4BC-4.1) 150. D (4BC-5.1) 151. C (4BD-1A.1) 152. D (4BD-1A.2) 153. A (4BD-1A.3) 154. A (4BD-1B.1) 155. B (4BD-1B.2) 156. D (4BD-2A.1) 157. C (4BD-2A.2) 158. D (4BD-2A.3) 159. A (4BD-2B.1) 160. A (4BD-3A.1) 161. A (4BD-3A.2) 162. C (4BD-3A.3) 163. D (4BD-3A.4) 164. B (4BD-3B.1) 165. D (4BD-3B.2) 166. B (4BD-3C.1) 167. C (4BD-3D.1) 168. A (4BD-4.1) 169. B (4BD-4.2) 170. C (4BD-4.3) 171. D (4BD-4.4) 172. A (4BD-4.5) 173. D (4BD-4.6) 174. C (4BD-4.7) 175. D (4BD-4.8) 176. B (4BD-4.9) 177. C (4BD-4.10) 178. B (4BE-1.1) 179. A (4BE-1.2) 180. D (4BE-1.3) 181. C (4BE-1.4) 182. D (4BE-1.5) 183. A (4BE-1.6) 184. B (4BE-1.7) 185. D (4BE-1.8) 186. D (4BE-2A.1) 187. C (4BE-2A.2) 188. B (4BE-2A.3) 189. A (4BE-2A.4) 190. D (4BE-2A.5) 191. D (4BE-2A.6) 192. C (4BE-2B.1) 193. D (4BE-2B.2) 194. C (4BE-2B.3) 195. A (4BE-2B.4) 196. B (4BE-2B.5) 197. B (4BE-2B.6) 198. C (4BE-2B.7) 199. C (4BE-2B.8) 200. B (4BE-2B.9) 201. D (4BE-2B.10) 202. A (4BE-2B.11) 203. A (4BE-2B.12) 204. B (4BE-2B.13) 205. A (4BE-2B.14) 206. D (4BE-2B.15) 207. A (4BE-2B.16) 208. C (4BE-2B.17) 209. D (4BE-2B.18) 210. D (4BE-2B.19) 211. A (4BE-2B.20) 212. D (4BE-2B.21) 213. C (4BE-2B.22) 214. A (4BE-3.1) 215. B (4BE-3.2) 216. C (4BE-3.3) 217. C (4BE-3.4) 218. B (4BE-3.5) 219. C (4BE-3.6) 220. D (4BE-3.7) 221. C (4BE-3.8) 222. B (4BE-3.9) 223. A (4BE-4.1) 224. B (4BE-4.2) 225. A (4BE-4.3) 226. D (4BE-4.4) 227. A (4BE-4.5) 228. B (4BE-5.1) 229. C (4BE-5.2) 230. D (4BE-5.3) 231. A (4BE-5.4) 232. A (4BE-5.5) 233. B (4BE-6A.1) 234. C (4BE-6A.2) 235. D (4BE-6A.3) 236. B (4BE-6A.4) 237. C (4BE-6A.5) 238. B (4BE-6B.1) 239. C (4BE-6B.2) 240. B (4BE-6B.3) 241. A (4BE-6B.4) 242. D (4BE-6B.5) 243. D (4BF-1A.1) 244. A (4BF-1B.1) 245. A (4BF-1C.1) 246. B (4BF-1C.2) 247. C (4BF-1C.3) 248. D (4BF-1C.4) 249. D (4BF-1C.5) 250. C (4BF-1D.1) 251. A (4BF-1D.2) 252. A (4BF-1E.1) 253. D (4BF-1E.2) 254. D (4BF-1E.3) 255. B (4BF-1F.1) 256. A (4BF-1F.2) 257. A (4BF-2.1) 258. A (4BF-2.2) 259. B (4BF-2.3) 260. A (4BF-2.4) 261. C (4BF-2.5) 262. D (4BF-2.6) 263. A (4BF-2.7) 264. D (4BF-3.1) 265. D (4BF-3.2) 266. B (4BF-3.3) 267. B (4BF-4.1) 268. C (4BF-4.2) 269. A (4BF-4.3) 270. A (4BF-4.4) 271. C (4BF-4.5) 272. D (4BF-4.6) 273. B (4BF-5.1) 274. B (4BF-5.2) 275. C (4BF-5.3) 276. C (4BF-6.1) 277. D (4BF-6.2) 278. D (4BF-6.3) 279. D (4BG-1A.1) 280. A (4BG-1A.2) 281. C (4BG-1A.3) 282. C (4BG-1A.4) 283. C (4BG-1A.5) 284. C (4BG-1A.6) 285. B (4BG-1A.7) 286. D (4BG-1B.1) 287. A (4BG-1B.2) 288. A (4BG-1C.1) 289. A (4BG-1C.2) 290. D (4BG-1C.3) 291. B (4BG-1C.4) 292. A (4BG-1C.5) 293. D (4BG-1C.6) 294. C (4BG-1C.7) 295. D (4BG-1C.8) 296. A (4BG-1C.9) 297. A (4BG-1C.10) 298. C (4BG-1D.1) 299. D (4BG-1D.2) 300. A (4BG-1D.3) 301. A (4BG-1D.4) 302. D (4BG-1D.5) 303. D (4BG-2A.1) 304. C (4BG-2A.2) 305. D (4BG-2B.1) 306. A (4BG-2B.2) 307. B (4BG-2B.3) 308. B (4BG-2B.4) 309. D (4BG-3A.1) 310. B (4BG-3A.2) 311. D (4BG-3A.3) 312. C (4BG-3B.1) 313. A (4BG-3B.2) 314. D (4BG-3B.3) 315. A (4BG-3B.4) 316. D (4BG-4A.1) 317. A (4BG-4A.2) 318. B (4BG-4A.3) 319. B (4BG-4B.1) 320. B (4BG-4B.2) 321. D (4BG-4B.3) 322. B (4BG-4B.4) 323. B (4BG-4B.5) 324. B (4BG-4B.6) 325. B (4BG-4B.7) 326. A (4BG-4B.8) 327. D (4BG-4B.9) 328. D (4BG-4B.10) 329. C (4BG-4C.1) 330. D (4BG-4C.2) 331. A (4BG-4C.3) 332. B (4BG-4C.4) 333. C (4BG-4D.1) 334. C (4BG-4D.2) 335. A (4BG-5A.1) 336. B (4BG-5B.1) 337. D (4BG-5C.1) 338. C (4BG-5C.2) 339. B (4BG-5C.3) 340. C (4BG-5C.4) 341. D (4BG-5D.1) 342. C (4BG-6.1) 343. A (4BG-6.2) 344. A (4BG-7.1) 345. A (4BG-7.2) 346. C (4BG-8.1) 347. A (4BG-8.2) 348. A (4BH-1A.1) 349. C (4BH-1A.2) 350. D (4BH-1B.1) 351. A (4BH-1B.2) 352. C (4BH-1B.3) 353. D (4BH-2A.1) 354. C (4BH-2B.1) 355. A (4BH-2B.2) 356. B (4BH-2B.3) 357. C (4BH-2C.1) 358. D (4BH-2D.1) 359. A (4BH-2D.2) 360. D (4BH-2E.1) 361. B (4BH-2E.2) 362. C (4BH-2E.3) 363. B (4BH-2E.4) 364. B (4BH-2F.1) 365. B (4BH-2F.2) 366. B (4BH-2F.3) 367. B (4BH-2F.4) 368. C (4BH-2F.5) 369. C (4BH-2F.6) 370. D (4BH-2F.7) 371. A (4BH-2F.8) 372. A (4BH-2F.9) 373. C (4BH-2F.10) 374. C (4BH-2F.11) 375. B (4BH-2F.12) 376. B (4BH-2F.13) 377. C (4BH-2F.14) 378. C (4BH-2F.15) 379. C (4BH-3.1) 380. A (4BH-3.2) 381. A (4BH-3.3) 382. D (4BH-3.4) 383. B (4BH-3.5) 384. D (4BH-4.1) 385. A (4BH-4.2) 386. B (4BH-4.3) 387. D (4BH-5.1) 388. D (4BH-5.2) 389. A (4BH-6A.1) 390. B (4BH-6A.2) 391. A (4BH-6A.3) 392. A (4BI-1A.1) 393. A (4BI-1B.1) 394. D (4BI-1B.2) 395. B (4BI-1B.3) 396. B (4BI-1B.4) 397. A (4BI-1B.5) 398. B (4BI-1B.6) 399. D (4BI-1C.1) 400. D (4BI-1C.2) 401. D (4BI-2A.1) 402. A (4BI-2A.2) 403. C (4BI-2A.3) 404. C (4BI-2A.4) 405. A (4BI-2A.5) 406. D (4BI-2A.6) 407. D (4BI-2A.7) 408. A (4BI-2A.8) 409. B (4BI-2A.9) 410. B (4BI-3A.1) 411. A (4BI-3B.1) 412. A (4BI-3B.2) 413. D (4BI-3B.3) 414. D (4BI-3B.4) 415. B (4BI-3C.1) 416. C (4BI-3C.2) 417. A (4BI-4A.1) 418. A (4BI-4A.2) 419. B (4BI-4A.3) 420. C (4BI-4A.4) 421. D (4BI-4B.1) 422. B (4BI-4B.2) 423. B (4BI-4B.3) 424. C (4BI-4B.4) 425. D (4BI-4B.5) 426. C (4BI-4C.1) 427. C (4BI-4C.2) 428. B (4BI-5.1) 429. A (4BI-5.2) 430. D (4BI-5.3) 431. B (4BI-5.4) 432. A (4BI-5.5) 433. C (4BI-6A.1) 434. C (4BI-6A.2) 435. A (4BI-6B.1) 436. B (4BI-6B.2) 437. C (4BI-6C.1) 438. C (4BI-6C.2) 439. B (4BI-6D.1) 440. A (4BI-6D.2) QUESTION POOL SUPPLEMENT ELEMENT 4B 4BA-1B-01 What is a [B+]spurious emission[B-] as defined by Part 97? (A). An emission on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth of a transmission, the level of which may be reduced without affecting the information being transmitted (B) An emission on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth of a transmission, the level of which exceeds 25 microwatts (C) An emission on frequencies outside the necessary bandwidth of a transmission, the level of which exceeds 10 microwatts (D) An emission on frequencies outside the amateur bands, the level of which exceeds 10 microwatts 4BA-1D.01 With what rules must US citizens comply when operating an amateur station aboard any craft or vessel registered in the US while in international waters or airspace? 4BA-2A.01 through 4BA-2D.01 {now believed to be taken care of through "universal changes" if anyone feels otherwise, please advise} 4BA-3F.01 (B) Only those frequencies listed in Section 97.8 {Don't you hate those that fix something that ain't broke!} 4BA-4C-1.1 Wha is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station which transmits communications used to initiate, modify or terminate the functions of a space station? 4BA-4C-2.1 {The term "telecommand operation" is no longer in Part 97. I was trying to bring the question into line with current terminology (Part 97.211) and remove the boldface at the same time. 4BA-4D-1.1 Which term describes space-to-earth transmissions used to communicate the results of measurements made by a space station? 4BA-4E-1.1 What is the term used to describe the operation of an amateur station that is more than 50 km above the Earth's surface? (A) EME operation (D). Space station operation 4BA-4E-4.1 {fellows, it ain't worth changing this late on Sunday} 4BA-4F-1.1 {ditto} 4BA-4F-2.1 Whish amateur licensees are eligible to operate an [B+]earth station[B-]? (A). Any amateur licensee (B) A special license issued by the FCC is required before any amateur licensee may operate an earth station 4BA-5A.1 (A) An organization that volunteers to administer Amateur Radio license examinations to candidates for the Novice License (B) An organization that volunteers to administer Amateur Radio examinations for any class of license other than Novice (C). An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and administering examinations for Technician, General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator licenses (D) An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate efforts of Volunteer Examiners in preparing and administering examinations for Novice Class Amateur operator licenses 4BA-5B.1 What are some of the requirements to be a VEC? (B). Be an organization that exists for the purpose of furthering the amateur service: be at least regional in scope: agree to coordinate examinations for Technician, General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator licenses: 4BA-5C.3 (A). By General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or a qualified supplier selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 4BA-5C.4 (A). By Advanced or Extra Class Volunteer Examiners or a qualified supplier selecting questions from the appropriate VEC question pool 4BA-7D.5 What will the administering VE's require an examinee to do upon completion of an examination element? (A) Complete a brief written evaluation of the session (B). Return the test papers to the examiners (C) Return all test papers to the VEC (D) Pay the registration fee 4BA-7E.4 What must the examiners do when the candidate scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade? {leave answers and distractors as originally drafted by N4BAQ} 4BG-4B-6 What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband phone receiver?